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Acquired sideroblastic anemia may be present in all of the following except
Alcoholism
Lead poisoning
Malabsorption
Myelodysplastic syndromes
Which of the following disorders does not have a hemolytic component?
Sickle cell anemia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Anemia of chronic disease
A patient presents with evidence of a hemolytic anemia. Spherocytes, polychromasia, and macrocytosis are observed. Which of the following would best help to distinguish the cause of the anemia?
Osmotic fragility
Direct antiglobulin test
G6PD activity assay
Vitamin B12 level
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is characterized by flow cytometry results that are:
Negative for CD55 and CD59
Positive for CD55 and CD59
Negative for CD4 and CD8
Positive for all normal CD markers
Which laboratory test is best used for the definitive diagnosis of sickle cell anemia?
Solubility testing
Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Peripheral smear review for sickle cells
Bone marrow analysis
Patients with sickle cell trait usually have RBC morphology that includes which of the following?
Normocytic, normochromic RBCs with occasional target cells
Normocytic, normochromic RBCs with rare sickle cells
Hypochromic, microcytic RBCs with moderate target cells
Macrocytic, normochromic cells with occasional NRBCs
A 3-year-old female patient is seen in the hematology clinic to investigate the cause of her persistent anemia. Hemoglobin electrophoresis was ordered, and results showed an elevation in Hgb F, with a small increase in Hgb A2. What is the most likely disorder based on these results?
Alpha thalassemia major
Beta thalassemia major
Alpha thalassemia minor
Hemoglobin H disease
A 36-year-old male patient has a CBC performed as part of a routine work physical. The WBC count was 6.5×109/L with a differential count of 48% neutrophils, 40% lymphocytes, 8% monocytes, 3% eosinophils, and 1% basophils. The majority of the neutrophils were mature but hyposegmented, showing bandlike or single nuclei. What disorder would be suspected?
Alder-Reilly anomaly
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
Pelger-Huet anomaly
Reed Sternberg syndrome
A peripheral smear review shows a mildly anemic sample with target cells and oblong hexagonal crystalloids. What is a possible identity for the crystalloids?
Hemoglobin S
Hemoglobin C
Hemoglobin SC
Hemoglobin E
A positive tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) stain is indicative of:
Burkitt’s lymphoma
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Hairy cell leukemia
Multiple myeloma
Choose the binomial name that is correctly written.
Staphylococcus Aureus
Staphylococcus species aureus
Staphylococcus aureus
staphylococcus aureus
The exchange of cellular DNA between two living bacterial cells that involves an intercellular bridge is which of the following processes?
Transformation
Transduction
Plasmidization
Conjugation
85% N2, 10% H2, 5% CO2 is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
Aerobes
Anaerobes
Capnophiles
Microaerophiles
A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is which of the following?
Safranin
Crystal violet
Gram’s iodine
Gram’s decolorizer
Choose the group of bacteria that is described as catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and that form grapelike clusters.
Neisseria spp.
Rothia (Stomatococcus) spp.
Staphylococcus spp.
Micrococcus spp.
A germ tube–negative yeast is isolated in the laboratory. The isolate is found to be negative for urease and unable to assimilate dextrose, maltose, or sucrose. CMT agar morphology showed blastoconidia only. The organism is most likely:
Candida albicans
Candida parapsilosis
Torulopsis glabrata
Geotrichum candidum
Which of the following is a key characteristic by which an unknown Cryptococcus spp. can be identified as Cryptococcus neoformans?
Appearance of yellow colonies
Positive urease test
Presence of a capsule
Positive niger seed agar test
A mold is isolated in the laboratory that displays a velvety, gray-green colony morphology. On microscopic evaluation, flask-shaped conidiophores arranged in a brushlike formation are seen. The most likely organism is which of the following?
Penicillium sp.
Acremonium sp.
Paecilomyces sp.
Scopulariopsis sp.
The only known human tapeworm with an operculum is:
Diphyllobothrium latum
Hymenolepis nana
Giardia lamblia
Schistosoma haematobium
Necator americanus rhabditiform larvae can be differentiated from Strongyloides stercoralis rhabditiform
Length of the notched tail
Length of the head region
Segmentation
Size of the genital primordium
Exogenous triglycerides are transported in the plasma in which of the following forms?
VLDL
Chylomicrons
LDL
Cholesteryl esters
Which enzyme is common to all enzymatic methods for triglyceride measurement?
Glycerol phosphate oxidase
Glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate kinase
Glycerol kinase
Which of the biochemical processes below is promoted by insulin?
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Esterification of cholesterol
Uptake of glucose by the cells
A plasma glucose result is 100 mg/dL. The corresponding glucose in whole blood would approximate:
58 mg/dL
87 mg/dL
98 mg/dL
114 mg/dL
Which of the following laboratory tests is the best marker to detect patients with diabetes who are at risk for developing diabetic nephropathy?
Creatinine
BUN
Microalbuminuria test
Glucose
In which of the following disease states would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only?
Biliary obstruction
Hemolysis
Neonatal jaundice
Hepatitis
Which of the following liver conditions shows an increase in both conjugated bilirubin and ALP, manifests with antimitochondrial antibodies, and shows
Hemochromatosis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Alcoholic fatty liver
Hepatic tumors
Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameters?
Serum AST and ALT levels
GGT and ALP
Bilirubin, GGT, and ALP
Ammonia and urea
Which of the following statements best describes the predominant feedback system associated with endocrinology?
Decreased levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ
Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of releasing factor from the hypothalamus
Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of inhibiting factor from the hypothalamus
Normal levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ
Which of the following is the correct collection and handling for the analysis of blood gases?
Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store on ice, assay within 1 hour
Glass syringe, liquid heparin, store on ice, assay within 15 minutes
Glass syringe, no additive, store on ice, assay within 15 minutes
Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room temperature, assay within 15 minutes
A patient’s ABO blood type is determined by which of the following?
Genetic inheritance and environmental factors
Genetic inheritance
Environmental factors
Maternal blood type
Immune function
Group O red blood cells are used as a source of commercial screening cells because:
Anti-A is detected using group O cells
Anti-D reacts with most group O cells
Weak subgroups of A react with group O cells
ABO antibodies do not react with group O cells
What type(s) of red cells is(are) acceptable to transfuse to an AB-negative patient?
A negative, B negative, AB negative, O negative
O negative only
AB negative only
AB negative, A negative, B negative only
An IgA-deficient patient with clinically significant anti-IgA requires which of the following?
Leukocyte-reduced fresh frozen plasma
CMV-seronegative RBCs
Irradiated RBCs and platelets
Washed RBCs
Which genes encode for Rh antigens?
RHDCE
RHD
RHCE
Both b and c
Which genotype confers the Bombay blood type?
Hh
hh
Sese
Lele
Which of the following is true of the Lewis system?
Lewis antigens are found on type II precursor cells
Lewis antigens are well developed at birth
Antibodies to Lewis antigens always cause HTRs
Antibodies to Lewis antigens rarely cross the placenta
An end-point of tube testing other than agglutination that must also be considered a positive reaction is called:
Clumping
Mixed field
Hemolysis
Microscopic
If a D-positive person makes anti-D, this person is most likely:
Partial D
D negative
Weak D as position effect
Weak D because of transmissible genes
Which product is least likely to transmit hepatitis?
Cryoprecipitate
Plasma protein fraction
RBC
Platelets
The function of the complement system include(s) which of the following?
Clearance of cellular debris
Chemotaxis
Lysis of bacteria
All of the above
Toll-like receptors act in which way?
Enhance recognition of bacteria by phagocytic cells
Activate B cells to produce antibody
Activate helper T cells
Aid in processing antigen in the form of an MHC molecule
A patient with a viral infection of the ABC virus is found to have a high antibody titer to the ABC virus’s RNA, or anti-ABCr. Which of the following is true?
MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD4+ T cells
MHC class II molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells
MHC class I molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells
MHC class II molecules presented antigen to CD4+ T cells
What is the main difference between agglutination and precipitation reactions?
Agglutination occurs between a soluble antigen and antibody
Agglutination occurs when the antigen is particulate
Precipitation occurs when the antigen is particulate
Precipitation occurs when both antigen and antibody are particulate
In the radial immunodiffusion test, the gel contains which of the following?
The antigen to be tested
Antibody
Patient sample
None of the above; the gel is the medium to which the antibody and antigen are applied in equal proportion
Characteristics of cytokines include which of the following?
They can have a pleomorphic effect
Cytokines are redundant
Cytokines enhance cellular differentiation of lymphocytes
All of the above
Agglutination and precipitation that is visible depends on antigen–antibody ratios ________.
With antigen in excess
With antibody in excess
That are equivalent
All of the above
What is the basic difference between the RPR and VDRL tests?
The RPR detects antigen, whereas the VDRL detects antibody
The RPR test is read macroscopically, whereas the VDRL is read microscopically
The RPR test is a treponemal test, whereas the VDRL is nontreponemal
There is no difference because they are both specific tests for syphilis
Skin testing for exposure to tuberculosis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
A 3-year-old boy is seen by his physican because of many recent bacterial infections. Flow cytometery indicates normal levels of Tand B cells. The nitroblue tetrazolium test for oxidative reduction is negative. The most likely cause is:
Wegener’s syndrome
Chronic granulomatous disease
Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
Diabetes mellitus
What type of microscope is commonly used to visualize the internal structures of microorganisms?
Electron microscope
Fluorescence microscope
Light microscope
Scanning microscope
Which equipment is used to maintain controlled temperature and humidity for growing microorganisms?
Autoclave
Microbial incubator
PCR machine
Spectrophotometer
Which tool is used to identify microorganisms based on their metabolic characteristics?
PCR machine
Laminar flow hood
Microbial identification system
Gel electrophoresis system
What is the primary function a Bunsen burner in a microbiology laboratory?
Count microbial colonies
Provide heat and sterilize the equipment
Create a controlled environment for microbial growth
None of the above
Which of the following equipment is used for incubation of samples at specific temperatures?
Centrifuge
Fume hoods
Flow cytometer
Water baths
Which of the following equipment is essential for sterilizing microbial cultures, media, and equipment?
Autoclave
Flow cytometer
Incubator
Spectrophotometer
What is the purpose of using gel electrophoresis in a microbiology lab?
Amplifying DNA
Counting microbial colonies
Separating DNA fragments based on size
Sterilization
Which instrument is used to measure the growth of microbial cultures by analyzing light scattering?
Centrifuge
pH meter
PCR machine
Spectrophotometer
What is the function of a cryogenic storage system in a microbiology lab?
Sterilize equipment
Amplify DNA
Grow microbial cultures
Store microorganisms at ultra-low temperatures
What type of weighing scale is commonly used in laboratories to measure small quantities with high precision?
Analytical balance
Digital scale
Industrial scale
Spring balance
In an unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight, which of the following will have increased?
Bacteria and nitrite
Specific gravity and bilirubin
Glucose and ketones
Which of the following is the principle of the reagent strip test for pH?
A double indicator reaction
The protein error of indicators
The diazo reaction
A dye-binding reaction
When a reagent strip is positive for bilirubin, it can be assumed that the bilirubin:
Is conjugated
Has passed through the small intestine
Is attached to protein
Is unconjugated
Which of the following results would be seen in urine from a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Bilirubin¼negative, urobilinogen¼negative
Bilirubin¼positive, urobilinogen¼positive
Bilirubin¼positive, urobilinogen¼negative
Bilirubin¼negative, urobilinogen¼positive
The test for which of the following results should be repeated?
Positive blood and protein
pH 7.0 with ammonium biurate crystals
Positive nitrite and leukocyte esterase
pH 5.0, WBCs, and triple phosphate crystals
The test for which of the following results should be repeated?
Positive blood and protein
pH 7.0 with ammonium biurate crystals
Positive nitrite and leukocyte esterase
pH 5.0, WBCs, and triple phosphate crystals
Children develop a form of nephrotic syndrome called:
IgA nephropathy
Henoch-Scho¨ nlein purpura
Minimal change disease
Acute glomerulonephritis
The most important sugar found in semen is
Sucrose
Maltose
Fructose
Lactose
Which of the following results of a test on the mother would suggest a possible neural tube defect in the fetus?
A positive antibody screen
A glucose value of 140 mg/dL
An a-fetoprotein result of 0.1 MOM
An a-fetoprotein result of 3.0 MOM
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced primarily by which of the following?
Secretion by the choroid plexus cells
Diffusion from the plasma into the central nervous system
Ultrafiltration of plasma in the choroid plexuses
Excretions from the ependymal cells lining the central nervous system
Which of the following can be used to identify a fluid as CSF?
Oligoclonal bands
Xanthochromia
Transferrin t protein
Absence of glucose
Paraffin embedded sections of tissue are cut by __________.
Electron beams
Sharp knife
Laser
Microtome
How thick are paraffin embedded sections that has been cut?
5-8 µM
5-8 nM
3-4 mm
3-4 cm
Which of the following stains blue with H&E stain?
Cytoplasm
Collagen fibers
Nucleus
Elastic fibers
What are Sudan stains used primarily for?
Blood
Fat
Nervous tissue
Elastic fibers
What is Mucicarmine stain used primarily for?
Blood
Fat
Nervous tissue
Epithelial mucin
What is Wright's stain used primarily for?
Blood
Nervous tissue
Elastic fibers
Decalcified bone matrix
What color do elastic fibers stain with Verhoeff Elastic stain?
Red/Orange
Pink/red
Purple/Red
Blue/black
Hemoglobin, hemosiderin, and bile pigments are the principal ____________ pigments.
Endogenous hematogenous
Exogenous hematogenous
Endogenous nonhematogenous
Exogenous nonhematogenous
These stains can be used for the demonstration of bacteria, rickettsias, and T. gondii.
Wright
Congo red
Giemsa
best carmine
If a tissue sample is suspicious for tuberculosis mycobacterium, this stain is often ordered.
Gram stain
Wright stain
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Oil red O
Transfer RNA (tRNA):
Is a gene silencing RNA used in cancer research
Is a macromolecular complex delivered from the nucleus by ribosomal RNA
Contains the codon sequence that synthesizes an amino acid
Contains the anticodon region that binds to mRNA codon in the ribosome
In the organic liquid phase (phenol-chloroform) DNA extraction procedure, proteins are precipitated out of solution:
In the aqueous phase
As a pellet on the filter
In the organic phase
On the silica-based gel
In a real-time PCR assay, which probe type is used in conjunction with fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) on the formation of a duplex?
Hybridization
Hydrolysis
Hexamere
Primer
The increase in quantifiable signal observed early in a real-time PCR run depends on which of the following?
The wavelength of the fluorescent dye in the reaction
The number of cycles in the run
The amount of fluorescent quencher
The initial amount of target DNA
PCR requires all of the following components except:
Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
DNA endonuclease
DNA polymerase
Oligonucleotides (primers)
In a chain-termination DNA sequencing reaction, which one of the following components are tagged with a fluorescent dye?
Dideoxynuclotide triphosphates (ddNTP)
Deoxynucleotide triphosphates (dNTP)
Pyrophosphates (PPi)
Capillary probe (CaP)
A type of polymorphism that consists of a series of trinucleotide repeats that can be two to seven base pairs in length and is known as a microsatellite sequence is also referred to as a:
Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
Variable number tandem repeat (VNTR)
Restriction endonuclease
Short tandem repeat (STR)
The site of a particular nucleotide sequence on a chromosome is referred to as a(n):
Allele
Locus
Polymorphism
Genotype
The most common nucleic acid stain used after separation by agarose gel electrophoresis is:
Bromothymol blue
Bromocresol green
Ethidium bromide
Phenolphthalein
The differential activation of genes depending on the parent from which they are inherited is referred to as:
Allelic heterogeneity
Imprinting
Mosaicism
Pleiotropy
Legal institutional issues in the clinical laboratory include all of the following except:
Confidentiality
Job announcements
Procedures
Chain of custody
An examination question that includes a comprehensive list of laboratory tests from a given patient and requests the examinee to make a diagnosis is an example of a question that belongs to which taxonomic level?
Level I
Level II
Level III
Level IV
Which of the following is a benefit of teams in the workplace?
Sense of accomplishment
Increased communication
Relief for employees
All of the above
Which of the following is a category for justification of capital expenditures?
Replacement
Cost reduction
New equipment
All of the above
Legal personnel issues in the clinical laboratory include all of the following except:
Medical leaves
Reimbursement
Termination procedures
Interview questions
How many liters are in 4 dL?
400
40
0.4
0.04
What is the molarity of a solution containing 2 mol of sodium in 400 mL of water?
0.005 M
0.5 M
5 M
50 M
How many moles of glucose are in 300 mL of a 2-M glucose solution?
0.6
6
60
600
In the calculation of the mean, what does “n” represent?
The sum of the values
The number of values in the set
The average of the values
The middle number of the set
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