Board Certification of Medical Lab Sciences

Acquired sideroblastic anemia may be present in all of the following except

Which of the following disorders does not have a hemolytic component?

A patient presents with evidence of a hemolytic anemia. Spherocytes, polychromasia, and macrocytosis are observed. Which of the following would best help to distinguish the cause of the anemia?

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is characterized by flow cytometry results that are:

Which laboratory test is best used for the definitive diagnosis of sickle cell anemia?

Patients with sickle cell trait usually have RBC morphology that includes which of the following?

A 3-year-old female patient is seen in the hematology clinic to investigate the cause of her persistent anemia. Hemoglobin electrophoresis was ordered, and results showed an elevation in Hgb F, with a small increase in Hgb A2. What is the most likely disorder based on these results?

A 36-year-old male patient has a CBC performed as part of a routine work physical. The WBC count was 6.5×109/L with a differential count of 48% neutrophils, 40% lymphocytes, 8% monocytes, 3% eosinophils, and 1% basophils. The majority of the neutrophils were mature but hyposegmented, showing bandlike or single nuclei. What disorder would be suspected?

A peripheral smear review shows a mildly anemic sample with target cells and oblong hexagonal crystalloids. What is a possible identity for the crystalloids?

A positive tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) stain is indicative of:

Choose the binomial name that is correctly written.

The exchange of cellular DNA between two living bacterial cells that involves an intercellular bridge is which of the following processes?

85% N2, 10% H2, 5% CO2 is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?

A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is which of the following?

Choose the group of bacteria that is described as catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and that form grapelike clusters.

A germ tube–negative yeast is isolated in the laboratory. The isolate is found to be negative for urease and unable to assimilate dextrose, maltose, or sucrose. CMT agar morphology showed blastoconidia only. The organism is most likely:

Which of the following is a key characteristic by which an unknown Cryptococcus spp. can be identified as Cryptococcus neoformans?

A mold is isolated in the laboratory that displays a velvety, gray-green colony morphology. On microscopic evaluation, flask-shaped conidiophores arranged in a brushlike formation are seen. The most likely organism is which of the following?

The only known human tapeworm with an operculum is:

Necator americanus rhabditiform larvae can be differentiated from Strongyloides stercoralis rhabditiform

Exogenous triglycerides are transported in the plasma in which of the following forms?

Which enzyme is common to all enzymatic methods for triglyceride measurement?

Which of the biochemical processes below is promoted by insulin?

A plasma glucose result is 100 mg/dL. The corresponding glucose in whole blood would approximate:

Which of the following laboratory tests is the best marker to detect patients with diabetes who are at risk for developing diabetic nephropathy?

In which of the following disease states would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only?

Which of the following liver conditions shows an increase in both conjugated bilirubin and ALP, manifests with antimitochondrial antibodies, and shows

Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameters?

Which of the following statements best describes the predominant feedback system associated with endocrinology?

Which of the following is the correct collection and handling for the analysis of blood gases?

A patient’s ABO blood type is determined by which of the following?

Group O red blood cells are used as a source of commercial screening cells because:

What type(s) of red cells is(are) acceptable to transfuse to an AB-negative patient?

An IgA-deficient patient with clinically significant anti-IgA requires which of the following?

Which genes encode for Rh antigens?

Which genotype confers the Bombay blood type?

Which of the following is true of the Lewis system?

An end-point of tube testing other than agglutination that must also be considered a positive reaction is called:

If a D-positive person makes anti-D, this person is most likely:

Which product is least likely to transmit hepatitis?

The function of the complement system include(s) which of the following?

Toll-like receptors act in which way?

A patient with a viral infection of the ABC virus is found to have a high antibody titer to the ABC virus’s RNA, or anti-ABCr. Which of the following is true?

What is the main difference between agglutination and precipitation reactions?

In the radial immunodiffusion test, the gel contains which of the following?

Characteristics of cytokines include which of the following?

Agglutination and precipitation that is visible depends on antigen–antibody ratios ________.

What is the basic difference between the RPR and VDRL tests?

Skin testing for exposure to tuberculosis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?

A 3-year-old boy is seen by his physican because of many recent bacterial infections. Flow cytometery indicates normal levels of Tand B cells. The nitroblue tetrazolium test for oxidative reduction is negative. The most likely cause is:

What type of microscope is commonly used to visualize the internal structures of microorganisms?

Which equipment is used to maintain controlled temperature and humidity for growing microorganisms?

Which tool is used to identify microorganisms based on their metabolic characteristics?

What is the primary function a Bunsen burner in a microbiology laboratory?

Which of the following equipment is used for incubation of samples at specific temperatures?

Which of the following equipment is essential for sterilizing microbial cultures, media, and equipment?

What is the purpose of using gel electrophoresis in a microbiology lab?

Which instrument is used to measure the growth of microbial cultures by analyzing light scattering?

What is the function of a cryogenic storage system in a microbiology lab?

What type of weighing scale is commonly used in laboratories to measure small quantities with high precision?

In an unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight, which of the following will have increased?

Which of the following is the principle of the reagent strip test for pH?

When a reagent strip is positive for bilirubin, it can be assumed that the bilirubin:

Which of the following results would be seen in urine from a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

The test for which of the following results should be repeated?

The test for which of the following results should be repeated?

Children develop a form of nephrotic syndrome called:

The most important sugar found in semen is

Which of the following results of a test on the mother would suggest a possible neural tube defect in the fetus?

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced primarily by which of the following?

Which of the following can be used to identify a fluid as CSF?

Paraffin embedded sections of tissue are cut by __________.

How thick are paraffin embedded sections that has been cut?

Which of the following stains blue with H&E stain?

What are Sudan stains used primarily for?

What is Mucicarmine stain used primarily for?

What is Wright's stain used primarily for?

What color do elastic fibers stain with Verhoeff Elastic stain?

Hemoglobin, hemosiderin, and bile pigments are the principal ____________ pigments.

These stains can be used for the demonstration of bacteria, rickettsias, and T. gondii.

If a tissue sample is suspicious for tuberculosis mycobacterium, this stain is often ordered.

Transfer RNA (tRNA):

In the organic liquid phase (phenol-chloroform) DNA extraction procedure, proteins are precipitated out of solution:

In a real-time PCR assay, which probe type is used in conjunction with fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) on the formation of a duplex?

The increase in quantifiable signal observed early in a real-time PCR run depends on which of the following?

PCR requires all of the following components except:

In a chain-termination DNA sequencing reaction, which one of the following components are tagged with a fluorescent dye?

A type of polymorphism that consists of a series of trinucleotide repeats that can be two to seven base pairs in length and is known as a microsatellite sequence is also referred to as a:

The site of a particular nucleotide sequence on a chromosome is referred to as a(n):

The most common nucleic acid stain used after separation by agarose gel electrophoresis is:

The differential activation of genes depending on the parent from which they are inherited is referred to as:

Legal institutional issues in the clinical laboratory include all of the following except:

An examination question that includes a comprehensive list of laboratory tests from a given patient and requests the examinee to make a diagnosis is an example of a question that belongs to which taxonomic level?

Which of the following is a benefit of teams in the workplace?

Which of the following is a category for justification of capital expenditures?

Legal personnel issues in the clinical laboratory include all of the following except:

How many liters are in 4 dL?

What is the molarity of a solution containing 2 mol of sodium in 400 mL of water?

How many moles of glucose are in 300 mL of a 2-M glucose solution?

In the calculation of the mean, what does “n” represent?